Since my friend Hans Krupp keeps bringing it up I will address the so-called criminal orders.
First, I must reiterate that the Holocaust is a plan to genocide Jewish people and homicidal gas chambers. The Holocaust is not Germans killing enemies of war in the East. If someone invokes the military actions of German soldiers in the East when discussing the Holocaust I can only assume that they are doing so because of the flimsily evidence for genocidal plans and homicidal gas chambers. I will demonstrate that the ‘criminal orders’ are not proof of a German perpetrated genocide.
I find it interesting that Wikipedia positively states, “The criminal orders went beyond established codes of conduct and led to widespread atrocities on the Eastern Front,” while a different article leaves room for debate as to whether the atomic bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki can be considered war crimes or not. The actions of Nazi Germany enjoy no such debate or nuance only because Germany lost the war. The Allies did not have to endure judgement for their actions only because they were the victors. Another reason this utter hypocrisy goes (mostly) unchecked is because people are conditioned to see Nazis as the ultimate evil and not question anything negative said about them.
With that in mind let’s start with the ‘Barbarossa Decree’. For the sake of argument I will assume that the document is authentic and the translation provided by Wikipedia has been done in good faith. As you can see the document refers to ‘enemy civilians’ and Jews are not named at all. To use this document as proof that Germans were committing genocide you have to rely on the premise that the Germans were committing genocide and assume that enemy civilians means innocent Jews. Were Jews killed as enemy civilians? Yes. Is this evidence of a genocide? No.
Next up is the ‘Guidelines for the Conduct of the Troops in Russia’. In Wikipedia’s entry on the subject a claim by an author is repeated, “Wade Beorn writing in Marching into Darkness notes that the order targets Jews explicitly as “racial enemies to be eliminated by the military regardless of their behavior”.[4]“
Unlike with the ‘Barbarossa Decree’ Wikipedia does not provide a full translation. All we get is an excerpt from the United States Holocaust Memorial and Museum. Nor are any of the books in the bibliography available online without cost. Therefore any person that actually wants to verify the claims made is met with hurdles. However, the excerpt that was provided does not support Beom’s claim that the German army was targeting Jews because they were Jewish.
So far we’re 0 for 5. Read part two where I address the last three ‘criminal orders’.
Why bother replying to someone like Hans Krupp? — when he makes a ridiculously false claim like ‘formal orders to exterminate Jews exist in the criminal orders issued mid 1941’? — it’s like a religion to guys like him, which is why some call it ‘Holocaustianity’.
A conviction for homicide when no corpse was found to prove the alleged victim is dead and hence no real proof is possible that the defendant is responsible for the death of anyone is so rare that there is a Wikipedia page about it — yet per the ‘Holocaust’ extermination story, supposedly the Germans killed millions of Jews, many with hydrogen cyanide, and yet there has never been a single body of a dead Jew found and autopsied to establish death by cyanide poisoning.
It is up to those who claim this happened to prove it did to the ‘beyond a reasonable doubt’ standard used in adversarial criminal court proceedings — but they could never do that, because there exists no convincing or unimpeachable forensic or documentary evidence showing it did.
It’s as simple as that.
Yes, that’s all very ture.
I respond to people like Krupp for the sake of the people reading these articles that are not yet broken from the Holocaust spell. And also to show others the arguments against various talking points from the Holocaust affirmers.